FSM & Toxicology

 

Father has blood group B, Mother has AB, children can have all the blood group except (AI 2001)

a. O

b. A

c. B

d. AB

 

Both Mother and Father have AB blood group, Blood group in Children can be (AP 98)

a. A only

b. A and AB only

c. B & AB only

d. A,B, or AB

 

With blood group A in both parents, it is possible to have offspring with (AP 92))

a. O group only

b. A group only

c. A group or O group

d. AB or A or O group

 

In old blood stained fibre, blood grouping is done by (AI 90)

a. Benzidine Test

b. Acid Elution Test

c. Precipitin Test

d. Hemin Crystal Test

 

Takayama reagent is used in (AI 91)

a. Guaiacum Test

b. Castle Mayer Test

c. Haemin Crystal Test

d. Haemochromogen Test

 

Which of the following statements about blood grouping is not correct (AIMS 04)

a. It can be used to resolve confusion of identity in alleged exchange of
babies in maternity unit

b. It is the method to conclusively fix the paternity

c. It can assist in matching fragmented human remains in mass
disaster

d. It can help to show whether blood stain on the weapon belongs to
suspect or victim

 

All are tests done on blood except (AI 2000 )

a. Acid phosphatase test

b. Benzidine test

c. Haemochromogen test

d. Teichmann’s test

 

The crystals formed in a positive takayama test are (AP 89, AP 97)

a. Dark brown clusters of choline iodide

b. Brownish black rhombic haemin

c. Yellow needle shaped rhombic spermin picrate

d. Pink feathery haemochromogen

 

Takayama reagent is used in (AI 91)

a. Guaiacum test

b. Castle mayer test

c. Haemin crystal test

d. Haemochromogen test

 

All are tests for seminal stains except (AIIMS 91)

a. Takayama Test

b. Barberio’s Test

c. Florence

d. Acid phosphatase test

 

Best Test of seminal stains is (AIIMS 83)

a. Acid phosphatase test

b. Precipitin test

c. Florence test

d. Alkaline Phosphatase test

 

Florence test detects (AIIMS 85)

a. Bilirubin

b. Urine

c. Semen

d. Blood

 

Barberio’s test is done for (PGI 89)

a. Blood

b. Urine

c. Saliva

d. Semen

 

In leucomalachite test, the positive test is indicated by (AIIMS 86)

a. Peacock Blue

b. Deep purple

c. Red

d. Khakhi

 

Faint letter mark can be made visible by (AIIMS 86)

a. Infrared photography

b. Spectrometer

c. Ordinary light

d. X-Rays

 

Vegetable stains can be differentiated from blood stains by
presence of (COMED-K 2005)

a. Iron

b. Copper

c. Magnesium

d. Vitamin A

 

 Hydrogen peroxide is used in all of the following except (AI 04)

a. Benzidine Test

b. Phenolphthalein Test

c. Orthotoludine Test

d. Teichmann’s Test

 

A Sample to look for uric crystal (gouty tophus) would be submitted
to the pathology laboratory in (AI 02)

a. Formalin

b. Distilled Water

c. Alcohol

d. Normal Saline

 

The common type of inquest in India is (Kar - 94)

a. Coroners inquest

b. Police Inquest

c. Judicial magistrate’s inquest

d. Medical examiners request

 

In India magistrate inquest is done in the following cases except
(AI 05)

a. Exhumation cases

b. Dowry death within 5 years

c. Murder cases

d. Death in police custody

 

A lady died due to unnatural death within seven years after her
marriage. The inquest in this case will be done by (AIIMS 2004)

a. Forensic Medicine Expert

b. Deputy Superintendent Police

c. Sub Divisional Magistrate

d. Coroner

 

Death sentence can be awarded by (KERALA 91)

a. First class magistrate

b. Second class magistrate

c. Sessions court

d. Chief Judicial magistrate

 

The power of amnesty for capital punishment is (DNB - 89)

a. The president

b. Supreme court

c. High court

d. The Governor

 

The sentence awarded by a court may be enhanced by the (AIIMS
83)

a. Magistrate court

b. High court

c. Higher court

d. None of the above

 

An order for exhumation can be give by (AP 91)

a. District collector

b. Additional district magistrate

c. Sub collector

d. None of the above

 

Exhumation can be done in India (BURDWAN 2000)

a. After 7 years

b. After 2 years

c. After 10 years

d. Any time

 

Exhumation is usually done in (AIIMS 80)

a. Early morning

b. Evening

c. Night

d. Any time

 

Dying declaration can be received by (AI 89)

a. Medical officer

b. Lawyer

c. Police officer

d. All

 

Dying deposition is more important than dying declaration because it is (TN 97)

a. Made to a magistrate

b. Oath is taken

c. Made in presence of accused

d. Cross examination is permitted

 

 

Subpoena is a kind of (AMU 85)

a. Decomposed body tissues

b. Designation

c. Document

d. Court tribunal

 

Which of the following is true about oath (JIPMER 93)

a. Not compulsory

b. Compulsory and binds witness for evidence given

c. Holds witness responsible for consequences of evidence

d. Witness is liable for prosecution if he does not take oath

 

Which of the following is true about Oath (JIPMER 93)

a. Not compulsory

b. Compulsory and binds witness for evidence

c. Doesn’t hold witness responsible for consequences of evidences

d. Witness is liable for prosecution if he does not take oath

 

Leading questions are permitted only in (AI 95)

a. Examination in chief

b. Cross examination

c. Dying declaration

d. Re examination

 

Perjury is (MAHE 98, KAR 2002)

a. Willful utterance of falsehood

b. Grievous injury

c. Contributory negligence

d. Criminal negligence

 

Perjury means giving willfull false evidence by a witness while under oath, the witness is liable to be prosecuted for perjury and the imprisonment may extend to seven years. This falls under which section ofIPC?

1. 190 of Indian Penal Code.

2. 191 of Indian Penal Code.

3. 192 of Indian Penal Code.

4. 193 of Indian Penal Code.

 

Who can be considered as an expert witness (DNB 92)

a. Medical man

b. Firearm expert

c. Chemical examiner

d. All

 

Conduct money is paid to expert witness with summons from (AI 90)

a. Civil court

b. Criminal court

c. High court

d. Sub magistrate

 

The minimum age at which an individual is responsible for his
criminal act is (AI 05)

a. 7 years

b. 12 years

c. 16 years

d. 21 years

 

Section 302 of Indian penal code is for (AMC 83)

a. Rape

b. Murder

c. Grievous hurt

d. Attempted suicide

 

Negligent conduct of a doctor with respect to poisonous substance
comes under which section of IPC

a. 272

b. 284

c. 304A

d. 324

 

A cognizable offence signifies (AI 93)

a. Imprisonment upto 2yrs

b. Imprisonment upto 3 yrs + Rs.1000 fine

c. Arrest without warrant

d. Only fine upto Rs.1000

 

Criminal responsibility of a person of unsound mind in India is
incorporated in the Indian Penal Code (AI 91)

a. Section 32

b. Section 84

c. Section 85

d. Section 88

 

Criminal negligence is punishable under (KAR - 94)

a. 306 IPC

b. 376 IPC

c. 304 A IPC

d. 304B IPC

 

For dowry death punishment is imprisonment of (Orissa 2000)

a. 3 years

b. 5 years

c. 7 years

d. 2 years

 

Indian Medical Council Act was passed in

a. 1916

b. 1964

c. 1961

d. 1933

 

Repeated advertisement in newspaper by a medical practitioner
is an example of (JIPMER 98)

a. Infamous conduct

b. Ethical negligence

c. Criminal negligence

d. Privileged communication

 

In case of malpractice punishment is given by (CU - 2000)

a. State medical council

b. MCI

c. IMA

d. High court

 

Professional death sentence is (AMC 2000)

a. Imprisonment for whole life

b. Rigorous imprisonment

c. Erasing the name from panel of RMP

d. None

 

A doctor should not take fees for issuing certificate (AI 2001)

a. To a Govt. Employee

b. Death certificate

c. Poor patient

d. Psychiatric patient

 

A boy attempts suicide, brought to private doctor and he is
successfully cured. Doctor should (AI 2001)

a. Inform police

b. Not required to inform

c. Report to magistrate

d. Call his girlfriend

 

The following may be examples of privileged communication
except (AIIMS 81)

a. An impotent person marrying

b. Syphilitic taking bath in public

c. Engine driver found as colour blind

d. Pilot having hypermetropia

 

Laws does not consider the following doctrine in a charge of
criminal negligence (PGI 93)

a. Vicarious liability

b. Contributory negligence

c. Resipsa loquitur

d. Novus Actus interveniens

 

A quack gives a penicillin injection to a patient who dies due to it.
Will he be relieved for his criminal responsibility by raising a plea
of accident (Rohtak 88)

a. Definitely

b. Likely to

c. Never

d. Deserves to be acquitted based on evidence

 

All the following are the conditions of defense available for doctor
against allegation of negligence except (Kerala - 2000)

a. Medical maloccurence

b. No fee for treatment charged

c. Therapeutic misadventure

d. Res judicata

e. Error of judgement

 

Death of a patient due to an unintentional act by doctor, staff or
hospital is (MAHE 98)

a. Therapeutic misadventure

b. Vicarious liability

c. Therapeutic privilege

d. Diminished liability

 

In the case of a patient who dies despite the best possible care
and skill, a physician can defend himself against a charge of
negligence on grounds of

a. Medical Maloccurence

b. Novus Actus interveniens

c. Therapeutic misadventure

d. Respondent superior

 

Patient of head injury has no relatives, requires urgent cranial
decompression, Doctor should (AI 2001)

a. Operate without consent

b. Take police consent

c. Wait for relatives

d. Wait for patient to improve

 

If informed consent with full disclosure would adversely affect a
patient or cause him to refuse life saving treatment a physician
can exercise

a. Privileged communication

b. Professional Secrecy

c. Res Judicata

d. Therapeutic privilege