FSM & Toxicology
Father has blood group B, Mother has AB, children can have all the blood group except (AI 2001)
a. O
b. A
c. B
d. AB
Both Mother and Father have AB blood group, Blood group in Children can be (AP 98)
a. A only
b. A and AB only
c. B & AB only
d. A,B, or AB
With blood group A in both parents, it is possible to have offspring with (AP 92))
a. O group only
b. A group only
c. A group or O group
d. AB or A or O group
In old blood stained fibre, blood grouping is done by (AI 90)
a. Benzidine Test
b. Acid Elution Test
c. Precipitin Test
d. Hemin Crystal Test
Takayama reagent is used in (AI 91)
a. Guaiacum Test
b. Castle Mayer Test
c. Haemin Crystal Test
d. Haemochromogen Test
Which of the following statements about blood grouping is not correct (AIMS 04)
a. It can be used to resolve confusion of identity in alleged exchange of babies in maternity unit
b. It is the method to conclusively fix the paternity
c. It can assist in matching fragmented human remains in mass disaster
d. It can help to show whether blood stain on the weapon belongs to suspect or victim
All are tests done on blood except (AI 2000 )
a. Acid phosphatase test
b. Benzidine test
c. Haemochromogen test
d. Teichmann’s test
The crystals formed in a positive takayama test are (AP 89, AP 97)
a. Dark brown clusters of choline iodide
b. Brownish black rhombic haemin
c. Yellow needle shaped rhombic spermin picrate
d. Pink feathery haemochromogen
Takayama reagent is used in (AI 91)
a. Guaiacum test
b. Castle mayer test
c. Haemin crystal test
d. Haemochromogen test
All are tests for seminal stains except (AIIMS 91)
a. Takayama Test
b. Barberio’s Test
c. Florence
d. Acid phosphatase test
Best Test of seminal stains is (AIIMS 83)
a. Acid phosphatase test
b. Precipitin test
c. Florence test
d. Alkaline Phosphatase test
Florence test detects (AIIMS 85)
a. Bilirubin
b. Urine
c. Semen
d. Blood
Barberio’s test is done for (PGI 89)
a. Blood
b. Urine
c. Saliva
d. Semen
In leucomalachite test, the positive test is indicated by (AIIMS 86)
a. Peacock Blue
b. Deep purple
c. Red
d. Khakhi
Faint letter mark can be made visible by (AIIMS 86)
a. Infrared photography
b. Spectrometer
c. Ordinary light
d. X-Rays
Vegetable stains can be differentiated from blood stains by presence of (COMED-K 2005)
a. Iron
b. Copper
c. Magnesium
d. Vitamin A
Hydrogen peroxide is used in all of the following except (AI 04)
a. Benzidine Test
b. Phenolphthalein Test
c. Orthotoludine Test
d. Teichmann’s Test
A Sample to look for uric crystal (gouty tophus) would be submitted to the pathology laboratory in (AI 02)
a. Formalin
b. Distilled Water
c. Alcohol
d. Normal Saline
The common type of inquest in India is (Kar - 94)
a. Coroners inquest
b. Police Inquest
c. Judicial magistrate’s inquest
d. Medical examiners request
In India magistrate inquest is done in the following cases except (AI 05)
a. Exhumation cases
b. Dowry death within 5 years
c. Murder cases
d. Death in police custody
A lady died due to unnatural death within seven years after her marriage. The inquest in this case will be done by (AIIMS 2004)
a. Forensic Medicine Expert
b. Deputy Superintendent Police
c. Sub Divisional Magistrate
d. Coroner
Death sentence can be awarded by (KERALA 91)
a. First class magistrate
b. Second class magistrate
c. Sessions court
d. Chief Judicial magistrate
The power of amnesty for capital punishment is (DNB - 89)
a. The president
b. Supreme court
c. High court
d. The Governor
The sentence awarded by a court may be enhanced by the (AIIMS 83)
a. Magistrate court
b. High court
c. Higher court
d. None of the above
An order for exhumation can be give by (AP 91)
a. District collector
b. Additional district magistrate
c. Sub collector
d. None of the above
Exhumation can be done in India (BURDWAN 2000)
a. After 7 years
b. After 2 years
c. After 10 years
d. Any time
Exhumation is usually done in (AIIMS 80)
a. Early morning
b. Evening
c. Night
d. Any time
Dying declaration can be received by (AI 89)
a. Medical officer
b. Lawyer
c. Police officer
d. All
Dying deposition is more important than dying declaration because it is (TN 97)
a. Made to a magistrate
b. Oath is taken
c. Made in presence of accused
d. Cross examination is permitted
Subpoena is a kind of (AMU 85)
a. Decomposed body tissues
b. Designation
c. Document
d. Court tribunal
Which of the following is true about oath (JIPMER 93)
a. Not compulsory
b. Compulsory and binds witness for evidence given
c. Holds witness responsible for consequences of evidence
d. Witness is liable for prosecution if he does not take oath
Which of the following is true about Oath (JIPMER 93)
a. Not compulsory
b. Compulsory and binds witness for evidence
c. Doesn’t hold witness responsible for consequences of evidences
d. Witness is liable for prosecution if he does not take oath
Leading questions are permitted only in (AI 95)
a. Examination in chief
b. Cross examination
c. Dying declaration
d. Re examination
Perjury is (MAHE 98, KAR 2002)
a. Willful utterance of falsehood
b. Grievous injury
c. Contributory negligence
d. Criminal negligence
Perjury means giving willfull false evidence by a witness while under oath, the witness is liable to be prosecuted for perjury and the imprisonment may extend to seven years. This falls under which section ofIPC?
1. 190 of Indian Penal Code.
2. 191 of Indian Penal Code.
3. 192 of Indian Penal Code.
4. 193 of Indian Penal Code.
Who can be considered as an expert witness (DNB 92)
a. Medical man
b. Firearm expert
c. Chemical examiner
d. All
Conduct money is paid to expert witness with summons from (AI 90)
a. Civil court
b. Criminal court
c. High court
d. Sub magistrate
The minimum age at which an individual is responsible for his criminal act is (AI 05)
a. 7 years
b. 12 years
c. 16 years
d. 21 years
Section 302 of Indian penal code is for (AMC 83)
a. Rape
b. Murder
c. Grievous hurt
d. Attempted suicide
Negligent conduct of a doctor with respect to poisonous substance comes under which section of IPC
a. 272
b. 284
c. 304A
d. 324
A cognizable offence signifies (AI 93)
a. Imprisonment upto 2yrs
b. Imprisonment upto 3 yrs + Rs.1000 fine
c. Arrest without warrant
d. Only fine upto Rs.1000
Criminal responsibility of a person of unsound mind in India is incorporated in the Indian Penal Code (AI 91)
a. Section 32
b. Section 84
c. Section 85
d. Section 88
Criminal negligence is punishable under (KAR - 94)
a. 306 IPC
b. 376 IPC
c. 304 A IPC
d. 304B IPC
For dowry death punishment is imprisonment of (Orissa 2000)
a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 7 years
d. 2 years
Indian Medical Council Act was passed in
a. 1916
b. 1964
c. 1961
d. 1933
Repeated advertisement in newspaper by a medical practitioner is an example of (JIPMER 98)
a. Infamous conduct
b. Ethical negligence
c. Criminal negligence
d. Privileged communication
In case of malpractice punishment is given by (CU - 2000)
a. State medical council
b. MCI
c. IMA
d. High court
Professional death sentence is (AMC 2000)
a. Imprisonment for whole life
b. Rigorous imprisonment
c. Erasing the name from panel of RMP
d. None
A doctor should not take fees for issuing certificate (AI 2001)
a. To a Govt. Employee
b. Death certificate
c. Poor patient
d. Psychiatric patient
A boy attempts suicide, brought to private doctor and he is successfully cured. Doctor should (AI 2001)
a. Inform police
b. Not required to inform
c. Report to magistrate
d. Call his girlfriend
The following may be examples of privileged communication except (AIIMS 81)
a. An impotent person marrying
b. Syphilitic taking bath in public
c. Engine driver found as colour blind
d. Pilot having hypermetropia
Laws does not consider the following doctrine in a charge of criminal negligence (PGI 93)
a. Vicarious liability
b. Contributory negligence
c. Resipsa loquitur
d. Novus Actus interveniens
A quack gives a penicillin injection to a patient who dies due to it. Will he be relieved for his criminal responsibility by raising a plea of accident (Rohtak 88)
a. Definitely
b. Likely to
c. Never
d. Deserves to be acquitted based on evidence
All the following are the conditions of defense available for doctor against allegation of negligence except (Kerala - 2000)
a. Medical maloccurence
b. No fee for treatment charged
c. Therapeutic misadventure
d. Res judicata
e. Error of judgement
Death of a patient due to an unintentional act by doctor, staff or hospital is (MAHE 98)
a. Therapeutic misadventure
b. Vicarious liability
c. Therapeutic privilege
d. Diminished liability
In the case of a patient who dies despite the best possible care and skill, a physician can defend himself against a charge of negligence on grounds of
a. Medical Maloccurence
b. Novus Actus interveniens
c. Therapeutic misadventure
d. Respondent superior
Patient of head injury has no relatives, requires urgent cranial decompression, Doctor should (AI 2001)
a. Operate without consent
b. Take police consent
c. Wait for relatives
d. Wait for patient to improve
If informed consent with full disclosure would adversely affect a patient or cause him to refuse life saving treatment a physician can exercise
a. Privileged communication
b. Professional Secrecy
c. Res Judicata
d. Therapeutic privilege
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